When everything is said and done, I don't remember the exact year the law was passed 1955-56 (I think) In order for a debt to be a public debt, the public must have had benefit of the debt. If the public receives no benefit from the debt then it is not a public debt.
Where is the public benefitting? Right on, no benefit at all ergo this is not a public debt. The Supreme court has upheld this law in the past and maybe we can count on them to do their job again. Both times in the past it was upheld the debt was wiped off the public record. The cases this occurred were in 1972 and 1991 ( I think ).
